MCQs for Nursing Students 3
1. A child is admitted to the hospital with a diagnosis of Wilms tumor, stage II. Which of the following statements most accurately describes this stage?
A. The tumor is less than 3 cm. in size and requires no chemotherapy
B. The tumor did not extend beyond the kidney and was completely resected
C. The tumor extended beyond the kidney but was completely resected
D. The tumor has spread into the abdominal cavity and cannot be resected
2. A teen patient is admitted to the hospital by his physician who suspects a diagnosis of acute glomerulonephritis. Which of the following findings is consistent with this diagnosis? Note: More than one answer may be correct.
A. Urine specific gravity of 1.040
B. Urine output of 350 ml in 24 hours
C. Brown (“tea-colored”) urine
D. Generalized edema
3. Which of the following conditions most commonly causes acute glomerulonephritis?
A. A congenital condition leading to renal dysfunction
B. Prior infection with group A Streptococcus within the past 10-14 days
C. Viral infection of the glomeruli
D. Nephrotic syndrome
4. An infant with hydrocele is seen in the clinic for a follow-up visit at 1 month of age. The scrotum is smaller than it was at birth, but fluid is still visible on illumination. Which of the following actions is the physician likely to recommend
A. Massaging the groin area twice a day until the fluid is gone
B. Referral to a surgeon for repair
C. No treatment is necessary; the fluid will be reabsorbed normally
D. Keeping the infant in a flat, supine position until the fluid is gone
5. A nurse is caring for a patient with peripheral vascular disease (PVD). The patient complains of burning and tingling of the hands and feet and cannot tolerate touch of any kind. Which of the following is the most likely explanation for these symptoms?
A. Inadequate tissue perfusion leading to nerve damage
B. Fluid overload leading to compression of nerve tissue
C. Sensation distortion due to psychiatric disturbance
D. Inflammation of the skin on the hands and feet
6. A nurse is assessing a clinic patient with a diagnosis of hepatitis A. Which of the following is the most likely route of transmission?
A. Sexual contact with an infected partner
B. Contaminated food
C. Blood transfusion
D. Illegal drug use
7. A leukemia patient has a relative who wants to donate blood for transfusion. Which of the following donor medical conditions would prevent this?
A. A history of hepatitis C five years previously
B. Cholecystitis requiring cholecystectomy one year previously
C. Asymptomatic diverticulosis
D. Crohn’s disease in remission
8. A physician has diagnosed acute gastritis in a clinic patient. Which of the following medications would be contraindicated for this patient?
A. Naproxen sodium (Naprosyn)
B. Calcium carbonate
C. Clarithromycin (Biaxin)
D. Furosemide (Lasix)
9. The nurse is conducting nutrition counseling for a patient with cholecystitis. Which of the following information is important to communicate?
A. The patient must maintain a low calorie diet
B. The patient must maintain a high protein/low carbohydrate diet
C. The patient should limit sweets and sugary drinks
D. The patient should limit fatty foods
10. . A patient admitted to the hospital with myocardial infarction develops severe pulmonary edema. Which of the following symptoms should the nurse expect the patient to exhibit?
A. Slow, deep respirations
B. Stridor
C. Bradycardia
D. Air hunger
11. A nurse is evaluating a postoperative patient and notes a moderate amount of serous drainage on the dressing 24 hours after surgery. Which of the following is the appropriate nursing action?
A. Notify the surgeon about evidence of infection immediately
B. Leave the dressing intact to avoid disturbing the wound site
C. Remove the dressing and leave the wound site open to air
D. Change the dressing and document the clean appearance of the wound site
12. A patient returns to the emergency department less than 24 hours after having a fiberglass cast applied for a fractured right radius. Which of the following patient complaints would cause the nurse to be concerned about impaired perfusion to the limb?
A. Severe itching under the cast
B. Severe pain in the right shoulder
C. Severe pain in the right lower arm
D. Increased warmth in the fingers
13. An older patient with osteoarthritis is preparing for discharge. Which of the following information is correct?
A. Increased physical activity and daily exercise will help decrease discomfort associated with the condition
B. Joint pain will diminish after a full night of rest
C. Nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory medications should be taken on an empty stomach
D. Acetaminophen (Tylenol) is a more effective anti-inflammatory than ibuprofen (Motrin).
14. Which patient should NOT be prescribed alendronate (Fosamax) for osteoporosis?
A. A female patient being treated for high blood pressure with an ACE inhibitor
B. A patient who is allergic to iodine/shellfish
C. A patient on a calorie restricted diet
D. A patient on bed rest who must maintain a supine position.
15. Which of the following strategies is NOT effective for prevention of Lyme disease
A. Insect repellant on the skin and clothes when in a Lyme endemic area
B. Long sleeved shirts and long pants
C. Prophylactic antibiotic therapy prior to anticipated exposure to ticks
D. Careful examination of skin and hair for ticks following anticipated exposure.
16. A nurse is performing routine assessment of an IV site in a patient receiving both IV fluids and medications through the line. Which of the following would indicate the need for discontinuation of the IV line as the next nursing action?
A. The patient complains of pain on movement
B. The area proximal to the insertion site is reddened, warm, and painful
C. The IV solution is infusing too slowly, particularly when the limb is elevated
D. A hematoma is visible in the area of the IV insertion site.
17. A hospitalized patient has received transfusions of 2 units of blood over the past few hours. A nurse enters the room to find the patient sitting up in bed, dyspneic and uncomfortable. On assessment, crackles are heard in the bases of both lungs, probably indicating that the patient is experiencing a complication of transfusion. Which of the following complications is most likely the cause of the patient’s symptoms?
A. Febrile non-hemolytic reaction
B. Allergic transfusion reaction
C. Acute hemolytic reaction
D. Fluid overload.
18. A patient in labor and delivery has just received an amniotomy. Which of the following is correct? Note: More than one answer may be correct.
A. Frequent checks for cervical dilation will be needed after the procedure
B. Contractions may rapidly become stronger and closer together after the procedure
C. The FHR (fetal heart rate) will be followed closely after the procedure due to the possibility of cord compression
D. The procedure is usually painless and is followed by a gush of amniotic fluid.
19. A nurse is counseling the mother of a newborn infant with hyperbilirubinemia. Which of the following instructions by the nurse is NOT correct?
A. Continue to breastfeed frequently, at least every 2-4 hours
B. Follow up with the infant’s physician within 72 hours of discharge for a recheck of the serum bilirubin and exam
C. Watch for signs of dehydration, including decreased urinary output and changes in skin turgor
D. Keep the baby quiet and swaddled, and place the bassinet in a dimly lit area.
20. A nurse is giving discharge instructions to the parents of a healthy newborn. Which of the following instructions should the nurse provide regarding car safety and the trip home from the hospital?
A. The infant should be restrained in an infant car seat, properly secured in the back seat in a rear-facing position
B. The infant should be restrained in an infant car seat, properly secured in the front passenger seat
C. The infant should be restrained in an infant car seat facing forward or rearward in the back seat
D. For the trip home from the hospital, the parent may sit in the back seat and hold thenewborn
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